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MRCPUK SEND Exam Syllabus Topics:

MRCPUK Endocrinology and Diabetes (Specialty Certificate Examination) Sample Questions:

1. A 67-year-old woman presented to her general practitioner with a swelling in her neck. It had been present for 4-5 years and had not changed in size during that time. She was completely asymptomatic and remained well.
On examination, there was a nodular goitre and no lymphadenopathy.
Investigations:
serum thyroid-stimulating hormone1.1 mU/L (0.4-5.0)
A subsequent ultrasound scan demonstrated seven nodules bilaterally (ranging in size from 5 mm to 15 mm), which had no suspicious features.
What is the most appropriate next step in management according to British Thyroid Association 2014 Guidelines for the Management of Thyroid Cancer?

A) subtotal thyroidectomy
B) levothyroxine 100 micrograms daily
C) fine-needle aspiration of largest nodule
D) reassure and discharge
E) radioactive iodine

2. A 64-year-old man attended the diabetes clinic for annual review. He complained of very recent tingling in his feet. A monofilament was used to screen for the presence of chronic sensorimotor diabetic peripheral neuropathy.
What force should a monofilament deliver?

A) 10 g
B) 2 g
C) 5 g
D) 1 g
E) 20 g

3. A 46-year-old South Asian man presented with a 2-month history of dry mouth and polyuria. He had hypertension treated with bendroflumethiazide. There was no family history of diabetes mellitus, but his father had died suddenly during lower limb angioplasty at the age of 51.
On examination, the patient's pulse was 76 beats per minute and regular, and his blood pressure was 164/86 mmHg. The rest of the physical examination was normal. Urinalysis was normal.
Investigations:
serum sodium143 mmol/L (137-144)
serum potassium3.0 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
serum creatinine123 umol/L (60-110)
fasting plasma glucose6.9 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A) oral glucose tolerance test
B) change bendroflumethiazide to ramipril
C) start oral hypoglycaemic treatment
D) repeat fasting plasma glucose
E) haemoglobin A1c measurement

4. A 28-year-old woman was referred with an 8-year history of progressive weight gain, hypertension and abdominal striae. She had no family history of note and was not taking any medication.
On examination, her blood pressure was 158/86 mmHg. There was central obesity with abdominal striae. There was mild proximal myopathy of the lower limbs.
Investigations:
serum sodium143 mmol/L (137-144)
serum potassium3.4 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
low-dose dexamethasone suppression test (2 mg/day for 48 h):
serum cortisol180 nmol/L (<50)
An MR scan of pituitary showed an invasive adenoma extending laterally into the cavernous sinuses bilaterally. Superiorly, the adenoma was in contact with, but not distorting, the optic chiasm. Formal visual field examination was normal.
What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A) trans-sphenoidal hypophysectomy
B) pituitary radiotherapy
C) adrenolytic therapy
D) bilateral adrenalectomy
E) somatostatin agonist therapy

5. A 59-year-old man with an 8-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus was seen in the outpatient clinic. He had worsening renal function in the absence of microalbuminuria.
On examination, his blood pressure was 175/90 mmHg. He had a femoral bruit, and absent dorsalis pedis pulses bilaterally.
Investigations:
serum creatinine150 umol/L (60-110)
estimated glomerular filtration rate (MDRD)39 mL/min/1.73m2 (>60)
In addition to addressing his blood pressure, what is the most appropriate next investigation?

A) renal ultrasound scan with Doppler studies
B) mercaptoacetyltriglycine (MAG3) renography
C) lower limb angiography
D) MR angiography of renal arteries
E) captopril diethylene triamine pentacaetic acid (DTPA) scan

Solutions: