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[Apr-2024] CompTIA SY0-601 Actual Questions and Braindumps [Q66-Q82]

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[Apr-2024] CompTIA SY0-601 Actual Questions and Braindumps

Pass SY0-601 Exam with Updated SY0-601 Exam Dumps PDF 2024


CompTIA SY0-601 (CompTIA Security+) certification exam is an industry-recognized certification that validates the skills and knowledge needed to perform core security functions. SY0-601 exam covers a wide range of security topics, including network security, threat management, cryptography, identity and access management, and security operations. CompTIA Security+ Exam certification is designed for IT professionals who are responsible for implementing and managing security policies and procedures in an organization.

 

NEW QUESTION # 66
While performing a threat-hunting exercise, a security analyst sees some unusual behavior occurring in an application when a user changes the display name. The security analyst decides to perform a static code analysis and receives the following pseudocode:

Which of the following attack types best describes the root cause of the unusual behavior?

  • A. Buffer overflow
  • B. SQL injection
  • C. Server-side request forgery
  • D. Improper error handling

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
SQL injection is one of the most common web hacking techniques. SQL injection is the placement of malicious code in SQL statements, via web page input12. A SQL injection attack consists of insertion or
"injection" of a SQL query via the input data from the client to the application. A successful SQL injection exploit can read sensitive data from the database, modify database data (Insert/Update/Delete), execute administration operations on the database (such as shutdown the DBMS), recover the content of a given file present on the DBMS file system and in some cases issue commands to the operating system3.
According to the pseudocode given in the question, the application takes a user input for display name and concatenates it with a SQL query to update the user's profile. This is a vulnerable practice that allows an attacker to inject malicious SQL code into the query and execute it on the database. For example, an attacker could enter something like this as their display name:
John'; DROP TABLE users; --
This would result in the following SQL query being executed:
UPDATE profile SET displayname = 'John'; DROP TABLE users; --' WHERE userid = 1; The semicolon (;) terminates the original update statement and starts a new one that drops the users table. The double dash (-) comments out the rest of the query. This would cause a catastrophic loss of data for the application.


NEW QUESTION # 67
A security analyst is investigating some users who are being redirected to a fake website that resembles www.comptia.org. The following output was found on the naming server of the organization:

Which of the following attacks has taken place?

  • A. Disassociation
  • B. Domain hijacking
  • C. DNS poisoning
  • D. Domain reputation

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 68
An engineer wants to inspect traffic to a cluster of web servers in a cloud environment Which of the following solutions should the engineer implement? (Select two).

  • A. Load balancer
  • B. DAST
  • C. TLS
  • D. CASB
  • E. VPN
  • F. WAF

Answer: A,F

Explanation:
Explanation
A web application firewall (WAF) is a solution that inspects traffic to a cluster of web servers in a cloud environment and protects them from common web-based attacks, such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting, and denial-of-service1. A WAF can be deployed as a cloud service or as a virtual appliance in front of the web servers. A load balancer is a solution that distributes traffic among multiple web servers in a cloud environment and improves their performance, availability, and scalability2. A load balancer can also perform health checks on the web servers and route traffic only to the healthy ones. The other options are not relevant to this scenario. A CASB is a cloud access security broker, which is a solution that monitors and controls the use of cloud services by an organization's users3. A VPN is a virtual private network, which is a solution that creates a secure and encrypted connection between two networks or devices over the internet. TLS is Transport Layer Security, which is a protocol that provides encryption and authentication for data transmitted over a network. DAST is dynamic application security testing, which is a method of testing web applications for vulnerabilities by simulating attacks on them.
References: 1: https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/what-is-a-web-application-firewall-waf/ 2:
https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/load-balancing/ 3:
https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/cloud-access-security-broker-casb/ :
https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/vpn-virtual-private-network/ :
https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/transport-layer-security-tls/ :
https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/dynamic-application-security-testing-dast/ :
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cloud-adoption-framework/ready/azure-best-practices/plan-for-traffic-ins: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/private-link/inspect-traffic-with-azure-firewall :
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/example-scenario/gateway/application-gateway-before-azure


NEW QUESTION # 69
Which of the following controls would provide the BEST protection against tailgating?

  • A. Faraday cage
  • B. Proximity card reader
  • C. Access control vestibule
  • D. Closed-circuit television

Answer: C

Explanation:
Access control vestibules, also known as mantraps or airlocks, are physical security features that require individuals to pass through two or more doors to enter a secure area. They are effective at preventing tailgating, as only one person can pass through each door at a time.
References:
* https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/what-is-a-mantrap
* CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition (SY0-601), page 222


NEW QUESTION # 70
A pharmaceutical sales representative logs on to a laptop and connects to the public WiFi to check emails and update reports. Which of the following would be BEST to prevent other devices on the network from directly accessing the laptop? (Choose two.)

  • A. Antivirus software
  • B. A host-based firewall
  • C. A DLP solution
  • D. Full disk encryption
    A VPN
  • E. Trusted Platform Module

Answer: B,E


NEW QUESTION # 71
A security analyst is looking for a solution to help communicate to the leadership team the seventy levels of the organization's vulnerabilities. Which of the following would BEST meet this need?

  • A. CVSS
  • B. SIEM
  • C. SOAR
  • D. CVE

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is a system widely used in vulnerability management programs. CVSS indicates the severity of an information security vulnerability, and is an integral component of many vulnerability scanning tools.


NEW QUESTION # 72
A security incident has been resolved Which of the following BEST describes the importance of the final phase of the incident response plan?

  • A. It returns the affected systems back into production once systems have been fully patched, data restored and vulnerabilities addressed
  • B. It identifies the incident and the scope of the breach how it affects the production environment, and the ingress point
  • C. It contains the affected systems and disconnects them from the network, preventing further spread of the attack or breach
  • D. It examines and documents how well the team responded discovers what caused the incident, and determines how the incident can be avoided in the future

Answer: D

Explanation:
The final phase of an incident response plan is the post-incident activity, which involves examining and documenting how well the team responded, discovering what caused the incident, and determining how the incident can be avoided in the future. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives - 2.5 Given a scenario, analyze potential indicators to determine the type of attack. Study Guide: Chapter 5, page 225.


NEW QUESTION # 73
Which of the following isa risk that is specifically associated with hesting applications iin the public cloud?

  • A. Zero day
  • B. Insider threat
  • C. Unsecured root accounts
  • D. Shared tenancy

Answer: D

Explanation:
When hosting applications in the public cloud, there is a risk of shared tenancy, meaning that multiple organizations are sharing the same infrastructure. This can potentially allow one tenant to access another tenant's data, creating a security risk. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives (SY0-601)


NEW QUESTION # 74
An analyst visits an internet forum looking for information about a tool. The analyst finds a threat that appears to contain relevant information. One of the posts says the following:

Which of the following BEST describes the attack that was attempted against the forum readers?

  • A. XSS attack
  • B. SOU attack
  • C. DLL attack
  • D. API attack

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 75
Which biometric error would allow an unauthorized user to access a system?

  • A. False denial
  • B. False acceptance
  • C. False rejection
  • D. False entrance

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 76
Which of the following would best explain why a security analyst is running daily vulnerability scans on all corporate endpoints?

  • A. To continuously the monitor hardware inventory
  • B. To find shadow IT cloud deployments
  • C. To hunt for active attackers in the network
  • D. To track the status of patching installations

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 77
A large enterprise has moved all its data to the cloud behind strong authentication and encryption. A sales director recently had a laptop stolen, and later, enterprise data was found to have been compromised from a local database. Which of the following was the MOST likely cause?

  • A. Bluejacking
  • B. Man in the browser
  • C. Shadow IT
  • D. SQL injection
  • E. Credential stuffing

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 78
During an incident response, a security analyst observes the following log entry on the web server.

Which of the following BEST describes the type of attack the analyst is experience?

  • A. Cross-site scripting
  • B. Pass-the-hash
  • C. SQL injection
  • D. Directory traversal

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 79
Which Of the following best ensures minimal downtime for organizations with crit-ical computing equipment located in earthquake-prone areas?

  • A. Additional warm site
  • B. Local
  • C. Generators and UPS
  • D. Off-site replication

Answer: D

Explanation:
Off-site replication is a process of copying and storing data in a remote location that is geographically separate from the primary site. It can ensure minimal downtime for organizations with critical computing equipment located in earthquake-prone areas by providing a backup copy of data that can be accessed and restored in case of a disaster or disruption at the primary site.


NEW QUESTION # 80
A security analyst is responding to an alert from the SIEM. The alert states that malware was discovered on a host and was not automatically deleted. Which of the following would be BEST for the analyst to perform?

  • A. Revoke the client's network access certificates
  • B. Quarantine the host from other parts of the network
  • C. Add a deny-all rule to that host in the network ACL
  • D. Implement a network-wide scan for other instances of the malware.

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 81
An organization wants to enable built-in FDE on all laptops Which of the following should the organization ensure is Installed on all laptops?

  • A. CA
  • B. TPM
  • C. SAML
  • D. CRL

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
The organization should ensure that a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is installed on all laptops in order to enable built-in Full Disk Encryption (FDE). TPM is a hardware-based security chip that stores encryption keys and helps to protect data from malicious attacks. It is important to ensure that the TPM is properly configured and enabled in order to get the most out of FDE.


NEW QUESTION # 82
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CompTIA SY0-601 or CompTIA Security+ exam is a valuable certification for professionals who want to validate their technical security knowledge and pursue a career in the cybersecurity field. CompTIA Security+ Exam certification covers a wide range of security topics and is recognized by employers worldwide. CompTIA Security+ Exam certification can lead to various job roles and demonstrates a strong foundation in cybersecurity, which is essential in today's digital world.

 

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