Pass Your Cisco CCST 100-160 Exam on Apr 21, 2025 with 310 Questions

100-160 Free Exam Study Guide! (Updated 310 Questions)

NEW QUESTION # 157
Which security feature provides network segmentation by creating virtual networks?

• A. VLANs
• B. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
• C. Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)
• D. VLANs

Answer: A

Explanation:
Option 1: Correct, VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) provide network segmentation by creating virtual networks, allowing different groups of devices to be logically separated on the same physical network.
Option 2: Incorrect, Firewalls are designed to monitor and filter network traffic based on predetermined security rules, but they do not provide network segmentation by creating virtual networks.
Option 3: Incorrect, An Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) is a security appliance or software that monitors network traffic for suspicious activity and takes action to prevent potential threats, but it does not provide network segmentation by creating virtual networks.
Option 4: Incorrect, A Virtual Private Network (VPN) is a secure tunnel between two or more devices, typically used to connect remote sites or allow remote users to access the private network. It does not provide network segmentation by creating virtual networks.

NEW QUESTION # 158
What is the primary goal of the Cyber Kill Chain framework?

• A. To detect and respond to cyberattacks early
• B. To attribute cyberattacks to a specific threat actor
• C. To analyze the impacts of cyberattacks after they occur
• D. To prevent cyberattacks from occurring

Answer: A

Explanation:
The Cyber Kill Chain framework is a methodology used to understand and respond to cyberattacks. Its primary goal is to identify and interrupt the stages of a cyberattack as early as possible, allowing for proactive detection, response, and mitigation of the attack.

NEW QUESTION # 159
During which stage of the incident response lifecycle are security incidents identified and prioritized?

• A. Post-incident activities
• B. Containment, eradication, and recovery
• C. Detection and analysis
• D. Preparation

Answer: C

Explanation:
The detection and analysis stage is where security incidents are identified and prioritized. This stage involves monitoring and analyzing network logs, security systems, and other sources of information to identify signs of a potential security incident. Once identified, incidents are further analyzed to determine their scope and impact.

NEW QUESTION # 160
Which of the following best describes the concept of automation in cybersecurity testing?

• A. Using software and tools to automatically conduct security tests
• B. Implementing security controls to prevent attacks
• C. Performing physical tests on network infrastructure
• D. Conducting manual security tests

Answer: A

Explanation:
Automation in cybersecurity testing involves using software and tools to automatically conduct security tests. This approach helps to increase efficiency and accuracy by automating repetitive tasks, such as vulnerability scanning, penetration testing, and log analysis. It allows for the identification of security issues and vulnerabilities in a timely manner.

NEW QUESTION # 161
What is the purpose of Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVEs)?

• A. To protect sensitive information from unauthorized access.
• B. To evaluate the effectiveness of cybersecurity measures.
• C. To identify hackers and cybercriminals.
• D. To categorize and provide unique identifiers for known vulnerabilities.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVEs) are used to identify and classify known vulnerabilities in software systems, hardware devices, or networks. Each CVE identifier provides a unique reference point for discussing and addressing specific security weaknesses. By using CVEs, organizations can effectively communicate about vulnerabilities and track their status, enabling better patching and mitigation strategies.

NEW QUESTION # 162
Which of the following is the primary objective of vulnerability assessment in cybersecurity?

• A. To assess the impact of identified vulnerabilities on the system.
• B. To evaluate the effectiveness of existing security controls.
• C. To determine the likelihood of a vulnerability being exploited.
• D. To identify and remove all vulnerabilities from a system.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The primary objective of vulnerability assessment is to determine the probability of a vulnerability being exploited. It involves identifying and prioritizing vulnerabilities, so resources can be allocated to fix the most critical ones first.

NEW QUESTION # 163
Which of the following is a characteristic of weak encryption algorithms?

• A. They are resistant to brute force attacks.
• B. They are susceptible to cryptanalysis attacks.
• C. They support secure communication protocols.
• D. They provide encryption keys with longer bit lengths.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Weak encryption algorithms are those that can be easily broken or exploited using various encryption analysis techniques. These algorithms have vulnerabilities that can be used to decrypt the encrypted data without the need for the encryption key.

NEW QUESTION # 164
What is the purpose of performing a vulnerability scan?

• A. To detect and block malicious network traffic
• B. To identify any exploitable weaknesses in a system or network
• C. To encrypt sensitive data transmission
• D. To assess the performance and latency of network devices

Answer: B

Explanation:
Vulnerability scanning is conducted to identify potential weaknesses or security flaws in a system or network that could be exploited by attackers. By conducting regular vulnerability scans, organizations can proactively discover and address vulnerabilities before they are exploited, ensuring the overall security and integrity of their systems. This helps in preventing unauthorized access, data breaches, and potential damage to the network infrastructure.

NEW QUESTION # 165
Which of the following is a unique identifier assigned to a network interface card (NIC)?

• A. Subnet mask
• B. MAC address
• C. IP address
• D. Default gateway

Answer: B

Explanation:
A Media Access Control (MAC) address is a unique identifier assigned to a network interface card (NIC) by the manufacturer. It is a 48-bit address typically represented as six groups of two hexadecimal digits separated by colons or hyphens. MAC addresses are used for communication at the data link layer of the network stack.

NEW QUESTION # 166
What is the purpose of implementing a firewall in a network?

• A. To prevent unauthorized physical access to network devices
• B. To control and filter network traffic based on predetermined security policies
• C. To scan and remove malware from network traffic
• D. To monitor network performance and troubleshoot issues

Answer: B

Explanation:
A firewall is a network security device that acts as a barrier between internal and external networks. Its main purpose is to control and filter network traffic based on predetermined security policies. It examines packets entering or leaving the network and either allows or blocks them based on the configured rules.

NEW QUESTION # 167
Which of the following is an example of a web application vulnerability that can be exploited by an attacker?

• A. Disk fragmentation
• B. Cross-site scripting (XSS)
• C. Buffer overflow
• D. Network latency

Answer: B

Explanation:
Cross-site scripting (XSS) is a web application vulnerability where an attacker injects malicious code into a trusted website, which then executes on the victim's browser. This vulnerability can allow attackers to steal sensitive information, perform phishing attacks, or deliver malware. Disk fragmentation, network latency, and buffer overflow are not examples of web application vulnerabilities; they refer to other aspects of computing performance and security.

NEW QUESTION # 168
Which endpoint security mechanism is used to secure data transmitted between the endpoint and the network?

• A. Firewall
• B. Antivirus
• C. Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
• D. Encryption

Answer: D

Explanation:
Encryption is the mechanism used to secure data transmitted between the endpoint and the network. By encrypting the data, it becomes unreadable to unauthorized parties, ensuring the confidentiality and integrity of the information being transmitted. Encryption transforms the data into a ciphertext, which can only be decrypted back into its original form using the proper encryption key. This helps protect sensitive and confidential data from interception and unauthorized access during transmission over the network.

NEW QUESTION # 169
Which type of encryption protects data while it is being transmitted over a network?

• A. Symmetric encryption
• B. Hash encryption
• C. Asymmetric encryption
• D. Transport Layer Security (TLS)

Answer: D

Explanation:
Transport Layer Security (TLS) is a cryptographic protocol that provides secure communication over a network. It ensures the confidentiality and integrity of data while in transit by encrypting it. TLS is commonly used to protect sensitive information during online transactions, such as credit card numbers or login credentials.

NEW QUESTION # 170
What is the purpose of vulnerability management in cybersecurity?

• A. To mitigate the impact of cybersecurity incidents within an organization.
• B. To transfer ownership of cybersecurity risks to third-party vendors.
• C. To assess the level of cybersecurity risk associated with a system or network.
• D. To identify and address vulnerabilities in a timely manner.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The purpose of vulnerability management in cybersecurity is to identify, assess, and address vulnerabilities in a timely manner. It involves a systematic approach to scanning, testing, and monitoring for vulnerabilities in systems, networks, and applications. By proactively managing vulnerabilities, organizations can reduce the likelihood of successful cyber-attacks and minimize potential damages. Vulnerability management typically includes processes such as vulnerability scanning, vulnerability patching, and vulnerability remediation.

NEW QUESTION # 171
Which of the following encryption algorithms is considered strong?

• A. MD5
• B. ROT13
• C. DES
• D. RSA

Answer: D

Explanation:
RSA is considered a strong encryption algorithm because it uses asymmetric encryption, which means it uses different keys for encryption and decryption. RSA is widely used in secure communication protocols and provides a high level of security.

NEW QUESTION # 172
Which of the following must be documented throughout the chain of custody process?

• A. Timeline of events that led to the acquisition of the evidence.
• B. Encryption protocols applied to protect the evidence.
• C. Names of all individuals who handled the evidence.
• D. Analysis methods used on the evidence.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The chain of custody refers to a documented record of all individuals who have had access to the digital evidence from the time of its discovery until its presentation in court. It is essential to know who has handled the evidence to establish accountability and to ensure that the integrity of the evidence is maintained. The names of all individuals involved in handling the evidence should be recorded, along with their respective roles and timestamps to establish a clear chain of custody.

NEW QUESTION # 173
Which of the following is a feature of cloud computing?

• A. Hardware provisioning
• B. Data encryption
• C. On-premises hosting
• D. Physical server maintenance

Answer: B

Explanation:
Option 1: Incorrect. On-premises hosting refers to hosting applications and data on local servers within an organization's physical infrastructure. It is not a feature of cloud computing.
Option 2: Incorrect. Hardware provisioning is the process of setting up and configuring the physical infrastructure required to run applications and store data. While this is an important aspect of cloud computing, it is not a specific feature of cloud computing.
Option 3: Correct. Data encryption is a feature of cloud computing that ensures the security and confidentiality of data stored and transmitted within the cloud. It protects sensitive information from unauthorized access.
Option 4: Incorrect. Physical server maintenance involves activities such as hardware repairs, upgrades, and maintenance tasks associated with physical servers. While these tasks are necessary for managing an on-premises infrastructure, they are not specific features of cloud computing.

NEW QUESTION # 174
Which network security concept focuses on limiting network access based on user roles and responsibilities?

• A. Intrusion detection
• B. Network segmentation
• C. Vulnerability scanning
• D. Access control

Answer: D

Explanation:
Access control is a network security concept that focuses on limiting network access based on user roles and responsibilities. It ensures that users are granted appropriate permissions and privileges based on their job functions. Access control mechanisms can include username/password authentication, multi-factor authentication, and role-based access control (RBAC).

NEW QUESTION # 175
Which of the following practices help in preserving the physical integrity of digital evidence?

• A. Using non-conductive gloves when handling the evidence.
• B. Cleaning the evidence using chemical solvents.
• C. Storing the evidence in a cold, damp environment.
• D. Leaving the evidence exposed to natural light.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Preserving the physical integrity of digital evidence is essential to prevent contamination or damage. Using non-conductive gloves is one such practice as it prevents the transfer of oils, dirt, or other substances that could potentially damage or alter the evidence. This helps to maintain the integrity of the evidence and ensures that any potential traces or fingerprints left on the evidence are not compromised.

NEW QUESTION # 176
Which security technology uses an agent-based approach to protect endpoints and is designed to detect and prevent malicious activities?

• A. Firewall
• B. Data Loss Prevention (DLP)
• C. Advanced Malware Protection (AMP)
• D. Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)

Answer: C

Explanation:
Option 1: Incorrect. A firewall is a network security device that monitors and filters incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules.
Option 2: Incorrect. An Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) is a network security device that monitors network traffic and is designed to detect and prevent unauthorized access and malicious activities.
Option 3: Incorrect. Data Loss Prevention (DLP) is a security technology that prevents sensitive data from being lost, stolen, or inadvertently leaked.
Option 4: Correct. Advanced Malware Protection (AMP) uses an agent-based approach to protect endpoints and detect and prevent known and unknown malicious activities. It includes features such as file reputation analysis, sandboxing, and behavior-based malware detection.

NEW QUESTION # 177
What is the primary purpose of malware remediation?

• A. To remove or neutralize malware infections
• B. To create a backup of infected systems
• C. To prevent malware infections
• D. To detect malware threats

Answer: A

Explanation:
Malware remediation aims to remove or neutralize malware infections from compromised systems. It involves various techniques, such as scanning and cleaning the infected files, removing malicious software, and repairing damages caused by the malware. The goal is to restore the system's integrity, security, and functionality by eliminating the presence and impact of malware.

NEW QUESTION # 178
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